What bothered me the most about that play, wasn't so much that it wasn't called or they didn't have VAR in place, it was the commentary afterwards in which the announcers said (and correct me if I'm wrong here, because this is what I thought they said as my attention was split between the derby and the USA-Canada men's curling match) that it should not have been called since it was not intentional. This goes back to arguments I hear about hand balls not being called because it was ball to hand and not hand to ball.
What percentage of called hand balls would be described as hand to ball or intentional? I would roughly say less than 10% of them would be characterized as that, with the only one sticking out to me being Suarez against Ghana in the WC several years back.